PSYCHIATRY QUIZ

 After reading carefully select the most appropriate answer by encircling the alphabetical letter.
1  One of the following cyclic antidepressants the one with maximum anticholinergic side effect is:
    a)  Imipramine
    b)  Nortriptyline
    c)  Amitriptyline
    d)  Doxepin
2  Metabolic- Endocrine effects of Lithium include all the following except
    a)  Hypothyroidism
    b)  Hyperparathyroidism
    c)  Hypoparathyroidism
    d)  Painless thyroiditis causing transient Hyperthyroidism followed by Hypothyroidism.
3  The benzodiazepine with shortest half life is
    a)  Lorazepam
    b)  Oxazepam
    c)  Diazepam
    d)  Nitrazepam
4  Virtually all benzodiazepines are highly lipophilic. But the one which is water soluble is
    a)  Chloediazepoxide
    b) Lorazepam
    c)  Diazepam
    d) Nitrazepam
5  The antidepressant which is most likely to lower the seizure threshold is
    a)  Fluoxetine
    b)  Bupropion
    c)  Mianserine
    d)  Trazodone
6  The combined use of Verapamil and Lithium can result in
    a)  Degreases serum Lithium level
    b)  Increases serum Lithium level
    c)  No change in serum Lithium level
    d)  Severe hypotension
7  The differential diagnosis of recurrent abdominal pain in an elevenyearr old child includes all of the following except.
    a)  Acute intermittent porphyria
    b)  Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
    c)  Meckel's Diverticulam
    d)  Sbdomonal epilepsy
8  Teratogenic risk for Psychotropic drugs is high between
    a)  First and third week
    b)  Third and eighth week
    c)  Tenth and fouteenth week
    d)  After fourteenth week
9  Seizures associated with frontal lobe epilepsy are most frequently the result of
    a)  Postnatal trauma
    b)  Malignant tumors
    c)  Tuberous sclerosis
    d)  Vascular malformation of unknown etiology
10  Suggested Pharmacotherapies for Alzheimer's disease Dementia include the use of neurotropics. All of the following are neurotropics except
    a)  Amyloid beta protien
    b)  Somatostatin
    c)  Nerve growth factor
    d)  L-acetyl carnitin
11  The association of D2DR gene is confirmed in
    a)  Alcoholism
    b)  Alzheimer's
    c)  Schizophrenia
    d)  Depression
12  Compared to high potency phenothiazines, low potency aliphatic and piperidine phenotiazines are more likely to produce
     a)  Orthoatatic hypotension
     b)  Anticholinergic side effects
     c)  Exxtrapiramidal reactions
     d)  Sedation
13  The chance of relapse in the first year in a patient with a history of recurrent Schizophrenic episodes on stopping antipsychotic medication is approximately
     a)  10%
     b)  30%
     c)  65%
     d)  95%
14  Weight gain is reported with most antidepressant medication except
     a)  Nortriptyline
     b)  Maprotiline
     c)  Fluoxetine
     d)  Trazodone
15  Buspirone has high affinity towards
     a)  5HT1A receptor
     b)  5HT1B receptor
     c)  5HT1C receptor
     d)  5HT1D receptor
16  The medical conditions wherein Lithium holds some promise include all of the following except
     a)  Herpes Simplex
     b)  Menier's Syndrome
     c)  Hyperthyroidism
     d)  Hyperparathyroidism
17  The percentage of excepted omprovement on Impramine in enuretic patient is
     a)  10% fewer wet nights
     b)  30% fewer wet nights
     c)  60% fewer wet nights
     d)  80% fewer wet nights
18  A patient on Lithium therapy is prescribed ACE inhibitors (Captopril/ Enalapril) by her cardiologist for the management of hypertention. This interaction may result in
    a)  Indreased serum lithium level
    b)  Degreases serum lithium level
    c)  No change serum lithium level
    d)  Severe hypotention
19  A Todd's paralysis
    a)  Lasts less than 12 hours
    b)  May persist for weeks
    c)  Is a 'false localising sign'
    d)  Does not have the same significance as a focal seizure
20  Focal seizures are particularly common manifistation
     a)  In a glioma
     b)  In a convexity menigioma
     c)  In an ependymoma
     d)  Following cerebral infarction due to occlusion of the middle cerebral artery.
21  A patient with acute intermittent porphyria develops seizures. The safest anticonvulsant would be
     a)  Valproate
     b)  Phenobarbitone
     c)  Paraldehyde
     d)  Phenytoin
22 Eczema, blonde hair, blue eyes and mental retardation are features of
     a)  Phenylketonuria
     b)  Tuberous sclerosis
     c)  Toxoplasmosis
     d)  Cretinism
23  All of the following are correct regarding lithium except
     a)  Absorption complete in 8 hours
     b)  Protien bound
     c)  Excreted almost entirely by kidneys
     d)  Inhibits adenly cyclase, reducing intracellular levels of cAMP
24  The hypotensive effect of some of the antidepressants is due to
     a)  Alpha 1-adrenoreceptor blockade
     b)  Alpha 2-adrenoreceptor blockade
     c)  Beta 2-adrenoreceptor blockade
     d)  Histamine H- 1 receptor blockade
25  Granular deposits in the cornea and lens in patients treated with long term chlorpromazine occur in about
     a)  5-10%
     b)  20-30%
     c)  30-40%
     d)  40-50%
26  Allof the following are correct regarding ophthalmoplegic migraine except
    a)  Ophthalmoplegia on the same side as the headache
    b)  Headache may last for several days
    c)  More common in males
    d)  Visual prodromes are rare
27  A patient had sudden onset  of hemiplegia and contralateral ophthalmoplegia. The lesion is most likely in the
     a)  Pons
     b)  Mesencephalon
     c)  Frontal lobe
     d)  Lateral medulla
28  The antidepressant with reuptake inhibition property of both dopamine and norepinephrine uptake is
     a)  Amineptine
     b)  Nomifensine
     c)  Amoxapine
     d)  Mianserine
29  All of the following are true regarding Huntington's chorea except
     a)  Dementia
     b)  Progressive choreiform movements
     c)  Necrosis of globus pallidus
     d)  Atrophy of the caudate nucleus
30  All of the following are side effects of valproate except
     a)  Alopecia
     b)  Weight loss
     c)  Coagulopathy
     d)  Tremor
31  Oxaprotitline is a
     a)  Monocyclic antidepressant
     b)  Bicyclic antidepressant
     c)  Tricyclic antidepressant
     d)  Tetracyclic antidepressant
32  Fross alterations characteristic of Pick's disease include all the following except
     a)  Sever so called 'Knife-edge' atrophy
     b) Severeatrophy of the posterior 3/5 of the superior temporal gyrus.
     c)  Relative preservation of the [re and post central gyri
     d)  Atrophy of the straitum
33  Cell bodies of neurons using betaendrofin as neurotranmitter are located in the
     a)  Substantia nigra
     b)  Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
     c)  Periacquequctal gray matter
     d)  Dorsal horn of spinal cord
34  EEG manifastation of autonomic seizures are
     a) 14 and 6HZ positive
     b)  Temporal lobe spikes or generalised spike and waves
     c)  Spike and wave phantoms
     d)  Amall sharp spikes
35  The antidepressant action of clenbuterol and salbutamol is due to
     a)  Reuptake inhibition of neurotransmitter
     b)  Alpha adrenoceptor blockade
     c) Down regulaton of beta adrenoceptor
     d)  Enhancement of serotonin uptake
36  All of the following have an excitatory effects on the postsynaptic cell except
     a)  Increased permeability to ca ++
     b)  Slow increased permeability to Na ++
     c)  Decreased permeability to K +
     d) Increased permeability to K +
37  Benzodiazepines modulate the synaptic action of
     a)  Glycine
     b)  Dopamine
     c)  Acetylcholine
     d)  GABA
38 The commonest symptom of increased intracranial Pressure in childhood is
     a)  Blurred vision
     b)  Stupor
     c)  Vomiting
     d)  Ataxia
39  Olfactory hallucinations occure with lesion of the
     a)  Parietal lobe
     b) Olfactory tubercle
     c)  Temporal lobe in the region uncus
     d)  Occipital lobe
40  PET imagine in OCD patients revealed brain dysfunction in certain brain areas. The area implicated in the Secondary major depression often complicating OCD is
     a)  Orbital Prefrontal cortex
     b) Antirolateral Prefrontal cortex
     c)  Straitum
     d)  Temporal cortex
1  (a)  2  (c)  3  (b)  4  (b)  5  (b)  6  (a)  7  (b)  8  (b)  9  (a)  10  (b) 11  (a)
12  (d)  13  (c)  14  (c)  15  (a)  16  (d)  17  (c)  18  (a)  19  (a)  20  (b)
21  (c)  22  (a)  23  (b)  24  (b)  25  (b)  26  (c)  27  (b)  28  (b)  29  (c)
30  (b)  31  (d)  33  (b)  34  (b)  35 (c)  36  (d)  37  (d)  38  (c)  39  (c)  40 (b)